why are there so many more homosexual than heterosexual paedophiles....in real percentage terms (Ake)

I'm scratching my head over the "real percentage terms" because I don't know what you mean. It might be wrong.

My argument is:
(1) The percentage of pedophiles among homosexual men is higher than it is among heterosexual men.
(2) Since there are so many more heterosexual men than homosexual men the percentage of heterosexual men among pedophiles is higher than that of homosexual men.
(3) Argument (1) doesn't matter for political argumentation for the higher percentage is still very low in absolute terms.
(4) We do not treat males in general differently from females just because their crime rate (pedophilia) is higher than that of females, for their higher rate is thankfully at a very low level: That is, by far most males are not pedophiles
(5) For exactly the same reason, males homosexuals should not be treated differently from male heterosexuals and that is where I disagree with Ake, in particular in their right to adoption (see the old threads). A relatively higher risk at a very low level is no reason for differential treatment. If it was we could jail all males between 16 and 30, just as a general precaution.

Wolfgang