I see that three people got all upset about my suggestion that "Spain may well be the birthplace of modern anti-Semitism." I can't understand why that was so upsetting.

Read the entire passage that I wrote:

After all, Spain may well be the birthplace of modern anti-Semitism. There was a strong Jewish presence in Spain from before the time of Christ, and it appears that Jews prospered and lived quite peacefully for much of the time until Ferdinand and Isabella expelled or converted all the Jews of Spain in 1492. But there are still many vestiges of Judaism in the culture and language of Spain - ever wonder why Saturday is called "Sabado" in Spanish?

It's my understanding that the Jewish community in Spain in 1492 was large, and it was well-integrated into Spanish society and quite prosperous. It seems to me that it was a situation very similar to Germany of the 1930s. There were pogroms and persecutions throughout the history of Judaism, but I think that 1492 Spain was the first time that all Jews were cleansed from a nation - all at the same time. Please note that I said 1492, not the 1930s. Perhaps you question my use of the word "modern" for 1492, but many "modern" European languages passed from "middle" to "modern" at just about that time.

Is it so appalling that I would say such a thing? If so, please explain why.

Damn. I can't figure you guys out.

-Joe Offer-