if "fakir" isn't an English word - why is it that Merriam-Webster has two definitions for it?

(yes - it is DERIVED from the hindi 'fakir')

but to say fakir is not English when it has been used for over a hundred years as part of the language ....where is the line drawn? what loanwords from Norman french do we drop? or the german, etc?

As someone mentioned above "English" is a patchwork language - I suspect that in many respects it is more a 'pidgin' then a true language...