Okay, I have to comment. I'm home today with a 17 year old virgin(by Doctor's surprised acclimation ) who is on the pill due to a serious ovarian cyst problem. So should the doctor have needed to put a diagnosis on the prescription to assure that a pharmacist would fill it ??? Does the pharmacist have the right to second guess the Physicians medical recommendation ??? And who made it the pharmacists business why the prescription was issued anyway ???

Perhaps if you post your refusal to sell certain items, I can choose not to do business with you. But as pharmacists aren't allowed to dispense without a Doctors order, I find it difficult to understand how they can refuse the ordered medical treatment.

tinker