This is something that has worried me for a while.

I think that I have a decent understanding of modal theory, and can understand why a certain tune is considered 'dorian' 'phrygian' or whatever.

What I find harder to understand is the way in which 'modal' seems to have become a definition of a certain type of music.

An ionian tune (one that uses the standard major scale) is never described as being modal.

Tunes based on the aeolian mode (natural minor) are similarly not described as being modal.

Blues songs which use a flattened 7th (Mixolydian mode) aren't generally described as being modal either.

Given the above, can anyone explain what is really meant by 'modal' music? Has it simply become a description of the Dorian mode?

Many thanks

Clare