Now I know,
Cos MG tells me so
We all anti-semantic here!


Otherwise AAAAAAAAAAAAAAARRRRRRRRRGGGGGGGGGHHHHHHHHH! God save the Queen's English.

And incidentally, one of the main reasons for Chaucer to write in "English" was to cock a snook at the predominant use of other languages (mainly french, but also latin) as the written languages of the ruling classes of England in that period. So there is every reason to imagine that he would have written as he would have imagined bumpkins to speak. His usages, particularly in rendered speech, are likely to reflect the obverse of the correct grammar of the period. He of course was risen from the upper middle class very much into the nobility.