They believe that the actual, flawless scripture would be the first one written. Therefore, though they would contend that the various versions contain the word of God, no one translation or version is perfect.

They would say that proper interpretation of scripture would accept cultural context -- that the scripture, to be best understood would have to first understand that much of it was written to a specific recipient.

They would say that proper interpretation of scripture would also accept historical context -- that some of what was written will not be understood if explained into the wrong timeframe.

They would say that that which is meant to be literal, and theological/ethical/moral principle, is, indeed, to be taken literally -- don't steal, don't murder, don't listen to Billy Ray Cyrus.

They would say that that which was written as poetry is meant to be read as poetry.

They would say that that which was written as symbolism is meant to be read as symbolism.

Whilst at first that looks like a comprehensive answer it does lead me to ask the obvious question - how am I to know which is which?

If the bible is (as you suggest) that the various versions contain the word of God then I need more help.

Let me take some examples:

As far as I can gather, animals went into the Ark two by two and then God drowned the world - and everyone and thing in it, including children except for one family. What made them lucky and to be honest wasn't that a bit drastic?

In the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah - Lot and his family were saved as uniquely righteous. A couple of angels were sent to warn Lot and the people of Sodom gathered around demanding the right to sodomize them - what else!! Genesis 19:5 Certainly Lot refuses which looks good for someone uniquely righteous; until you realise he offers his two virgin daughters as replacements!! Genesis 19:7-8.

After their mother was turned into a pillar of salt the daughters get their father drunk and he makes them both pregnant. Genesis 19:31-36

Now I am not sure whether this is of the time; allegory; poetry; or what but it seems to me a very weird a way to behave. But no doubt some fundamentalist will be able to explain it to me......

(The same thing happens a bit later in Judges 19:25-6 where an unnamed Levite hands over his virgin daughter and his concubine for gang raping - so clearly there was a lot of it about!! Not such a happy ending this time - she dies and so he kindly cuts her into twelve and distributes her into all the coasts of Israel).

I wonder if this is the book you would really choose to lead your life by??