I was referring to Christian scripture. I will rephrase my earlier post...

The charge being made by the Christian Gospel against the Jewish authorities (and not "the Jewish people"), is that they were corrupt. So in the context of the New Testament, it would make sense for them to break Jewish law in order to accomplish what they wanted to do.

This doesn't prove that the Jewish authorities were corrupt, but it does demonstrate a context within which the actions taken could have made sense, and it does prove that it is not "impossible" for the events to have taken place as they are described in the New Testament.