Hi Wav. Many of your interlocutors seem to struggle with your tendency to avoid straight questions, so I thought I'd ask a couple that only require numbers as answers.
First simple question WAV; since it can easily be demonstrated that all cultures (however isolated) have contributions from others, for how many years does a cultural artefact (using Schein and/or Hofstede's definition of 'artefact', which I am sure your degree in humanities covered) have to be practised before it becomes indigenous, in your view? Simple, numerical answer please, to the nearest 10 years or so, without referring to your website; I've checked that, and it doesn't answer the question. This isn't a mischievous question, so please don't treat it as such; I am genuinely trying to understand the basis of your belief in a homogenous, static and identifiable 'English' culture.
Second simple question; what percentage of a population have to practise a cultural artefact before you would accept that it is part of the culture of the whole population? (For example, what percentage of the people would have to sing folk songs?) Again, a simple numerical answer will be fine.
Thanks.
Best wishes
Tim