"There is a comparison between the behaviour of the Israelis and the Nazis...."

This statement is preposterous and offensive to the extreme!!!

At what point do we have to agree that it's actually not preposterous? What more do the Israelis have to do? Or are you saying it is always preposterous a priori? If so, why? Once again you appear to be giving the Israelis carte blanche because of wrongs suffered by Jews in the Shoa. That does not honour truth, nor the victims of the Shoa.