Folks,

I am not expressing my view here,

But I would like to clarify Joes argument as it doesn't seem to be getting through to people.

here it is in a nutshell.

1. Pope says no sex outside marriage.

2. catholics do it despite beng told not to.


OK - so catholics are disobeying the popes order.


then:

1. Pope says no condoms.

2. Catholics all do exactly as they are told and ride bareback.


As you can see, there is an inconsistency above.



If the reason the third world doesn't use condoms is because the pope told them not to, then how come they don't abstain from sex outside marriage because the pope tld them not to?


Joe doesn't ned to provide evidence for pointing out a logical fallacy.

His evidence is the logical fallacy.



Whether I agree with Joe that the pope does not influence catholics when it comes to the use of condoms is another matter entirely.

I will not give my view here as that was not the purpose of my post.