So, the illegal occupation of the Jewish Homeland as determined by the LAST treaty the the Arabs agreed to (Since they deny the validity of the UN Partition) in 1948 means that the ORIGINAL MANDATE PALESTINE Jewish Homeland boundries, as stated in 1923 "needs to be rectified by the withdrawal of the occupiers."

So YOU are now stating that the Present state of Israel, ( successor state to the Jewish Homeland portion of Mandate Pletine ) is entitled to the ENTIRE WEST BANK????


Or are you saying that the treaty establishing Mandate Palestine is invalid, so that Lebanon, Syria, et al are illegal states?

Or is it that ONLY the JEWISH state is illegal?


Just want to find out which it is...