I can't cite chapter and verse. But I think I remember reading about a case of inheritance about which there was an issue over a comma either being there or not. It was something like "...to be divided among A, B, and C" vs "...A, B and C" Perhaps it was just a puzzler. But in this case, the comma made a significant difference as to how it was divided. (Oh, I wish I could remember the specifics! CRSS, you know.)

Usually a mere comma does not make that much difference. But, as said before, in some legal cases, it can. And in more mundane circumstances, it can still cause confusion in the reader requiring follow-up clarification.

Saul