Could it be explained why the lack of political or governmental ownership of a country by its occupants, presumably previously subject to some sort of occupation by others, somehow makes it OK for people, in some cases holding deeds to properties in the cities, to be displaced from their homes?

Why people with olive trees hundreds of years old in their orchards are regarded as transients with no claim to live in their homes?

Using the Ottoman empire as the model for who actually owned the land could mean that the Greeks can't be seen as the owners of Greece, the Egyptians of Egypt, the Albanians of Albania, and anyone who has lived under any other political system than a democracy in which they were involved as vulnerable to any other group who takes it into its head to walk in and take over as freeholder, and eject the dwellers in the land in the way the original Israelites did the original occupants of the disputed areas. They didn't, however, claim that they hadn't lived there or hadn't governed themselves. Just that God had over-ruled that arrangement.

Penny