Have the oil fields which Scotland would "own" been settled? As far as I know (from my old geography lectures) the boundary between nation's territorial waters carries on in the direction of the land border. A quick look on an online map would suggest that England's territorial waters extend roughly north east from Berwick and not due east. Not being Au fait with where the oil fields are would this line cut across the oil fields?

Also, something I've never been able to understand is if Scotland isn't being subsidised by England how do they afford free care for the elderly and no prescription charges etc.? What do the English pay for that means we can't afford free prescriptions and care that the Scots (Welsh and Northern Irish too I believe) can afford to give away for nothing? If everything is equal at the moment why do I have to fork out £120 a year for prescription drugs that I'd get for free if I lived a few hours' drive further north?


PS I thought it very funny that Allan Conn rebutted an Anglocentric history with his own highly Scottish-centric history :- )