Do you have evidence (research) to show homosexuality is behavioral versus biological (not limited to genetic), gfs? If so, I have not seen the research put forward for consideration.

If not, would it not be an "over-reach" to classify if as behavior based. A few cases involving personal choice hardly makes a sufficient case to make that leap (most logical thinkers have a higher standard of proof than that).

I am not doubting your conviction. However, as you make a statement, it is your task to show others how it so, or at least on what basis you were so convinced of such a conviction. If one cause has not been determined, this does not give another one more validity because of that.