"What may be relevant is that the earliest documents of Morris, both here and on the Continent, portray it as a Court-sponsored event from the mid 15th century. Although it could be argued that only Court events got written up, it's nowhere mentioned in the more secular documentation, Chaucer, Piers Plowman and their brethren."


"The notion that Morris evolved from Moorish/Morresque is well documented".


Am I correct in think the first of these statements is based in detailed academic research and the second is a notion with little or no evidence?