As I understand, the law is that 'consent' is not admissible as a defence if it is shown that the woman was too intoxicated to give informed consent. This, I must say, appears to me unjust. Surely justice would be better served if on such occasions rape charges were not brought as a matter of principle, as the question of consent would be impossible to establish satisfactorily.

I seem to remember a longrunning thread addressing this question a few years ago.

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