steve, my post to joe applies to you too, but you seem to have missed it. Jesus clearly did define marriage as between a man and a woman , though of course you could at a streeeeech conjecture that he was not excluding homosexuals from the marriage ordinance !. you would just have to dismiss the other scriptures that have any bearing on the subject.....which of course you would do anyway.   that includes the ot scripture you asked someone else about...Leviticus 18 v 22. as I suggested to joe, Jesus audience would likely have accepted that prohibition from their religious cultural worldview, and have no need for him to spell it out, unlike the apostles letters to non jews.