Musket, what I said is: So, Musket, are you saying that there are no atheists who abuse children? I'm sure the percentage is about the same, between clerics and atheists. So, how can an atheist pass judgment on all Catholics or all clerics because of a minority who are undeniably guilty of abuse?

That, my friend, is a rhetorical question. The answer is obvious. Of course you wouldn't say there are no atheists who abuse children. And neither would I say that there are no Catholic priests who abuse children. So, it seems then that we are on level ground, and I have just as much right to speak as you.

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Teribus, I would be very surprised to learn that the "give me the child..." phrase came from Ignatius Loyola or Francis Xavier. My Oxford Dictionary of Quotations says it is a "Jesuit maxim," and that is quoted in Lean's Collectanea, vol. 3 (1903). I know from personal experience that it is a Jesuit maxim, often referred to by Jesuits when they're trying to raise funds to support their schools.
But Lean's doesn't cite the source of the maxim. I said above that while an Aristotelian origin seems possible, I'd like to see chapter and verse - and preferably see the maxim in Greek.

-Joe-