"Palestine" was ruled by the Ottoman Empire (Turks) from 1517 to 1917. "Palestine" included Arab-Palestinians and Jewish-Palestinians both. Neither of these very distinct cultures had self rule in the last 400 years, yet both occupied the territory. 20% of the land was aportioned to the Jewish-Palestinians, and 80% went to the Arab-Palestinians (for good or for ill) in 1923, regardless of whether England had a right to decide what happened with the land or no. Who then should have decided which of the indigenous cultures should assume control of the area? How was that to happen when Britain finally left? Should they perhaps just have pulled out and left those living in the area to duke it out for themselves?

GUEST, are you saying that none of this is correct? Cite your examples.

I still see no reason to sling insults. If your argument is compelling, state your facts and simply allow them to speak for themselves. Insults never taught anyone anything. All they ever do is shut people down to your point of view, making it so that the information is tossed out like baby with the dirty bathwater.

I would also add that I am, at least, posting with a name attached. With a little checking, anyone would be able to match it with my actual identity. I find your brand of attack cowardly in the extreme. You hide behind your anonymity, and so you risk nothing at all and can take whatever jabs you wish.