Q: When Cray, Hopkins and others ascribe "Bless 'em All" to Fred Godfrey, 1916, they merely repeat an assertion made by Ward-Jackson in 1945 (see above). There seems to be no available evidence for this claim beyond hearsay. It may well be true, but what is the real basis of the claim? All we know is that Hughes and Lake copyrighted their British version in 1940, making the song an immediate hit, and that other, quite insipid, pop versions followed. The burden of proof, which may still be met by someone, rests upon those who simply ASSERT the song's existence before that date. (Use of the melody may indicate that it, at least, really was in the public domain, but we still need evidence.)

"Bless 'em All" was one of the best-known melodies of the 20th century. It would be nice to know more about the song's history.