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Grab Was 'Lord of the Dance' anti-semitic? (353* d) RE: Was 'Lord of the Dance' anti-semitic? 08 Jul 08

Gerry, the Bible certainly isn't 100% accurate. But the Christian religion (a religion I don't follow, incidentally) is based on it, so your argument that claims anti-Semitism in Christian teaching needs to refer back to the Bible. (It's also worth noting that Genesis which you just mentioned is as relevant to Judaism as Christianity - so how accurate is the Torah then, the document which tells us that this is the direct word of Jahweh?)

Frankly I don't care if you don't share my view of what Jesus (assuming he existed) was trying to do. But you say:-

The fact remains that it was the Romans who crucified Jesus; the Romans, and not some or any or all Jews. To attribute the crucifixion to (some of) the Jews is an anti-semitic lie, the original anti-semitic lie on which all the others are built.

As has been asked before, where is your evidence that all records of Jesus's crucifixion (namely the first four books of the New Testament) are lies?

The fact remains that those records squarely put this in the hands of the local religious authorities, a situation which matches perfectly with records of how the Romans governed their empire. And the Bible does attribute it to "some of the Jews", it attributes it to "some Jews". Note the missing "the". Any implications that the Jewish people as a race or a religion are linked with Jesus's death are clearly anti-Semitic rubbish. But that certain specific Jewish individuals were responsible - where#'s your evidence that this wasn't the case?


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