Can I assume, from the above, that DMcG believes that Bangladesh is in India? If not, the conflation of these two ideas makes no sense. No, of course I don't think Bangladesh is in India (especially as I have visited both). But if you thought Rees-Mogg was only talking about Indian regulations you have a strange view of committee discussions. His point was surely that he felt the EU standards put us at a disadvantage against our potential competitors and India was merely an illustrative example. What I think makes no sense is to assume he meant India and only India.
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