My very immediate reaction is that I don't find the quoted language terribly disturbing. However, when asked for specifics, the article suggests he engaged in some distressing group stereotyping.
However, those specifics are not in quotation marks. Did he say, "Those Irish and Cuban Americans do this." Or did he say, "I've seen this in the political dialogue of some Irish-Americans and some Cuban Americans, to cite two examples."
The former is worse than the latter. The former should be explained and, perhaps, an apology is due. Criticism of the latter could be the type of foolishness that forbids a politician from being candid and sophisticated.
I've admired Hart. I hope he didn't simply stereotype egregiously. They can step in it, can't they?