The evidence Amos mentions does not get to the bottom of Don's post. No one denies that people starved to death in Ireland. What is hotly debated is the meaning of the term "famine." In Ireland there were wealthy people and there was wealth owned by absentees. If that wealth had been redistributed it is likely that a widespread starvation would not have occurred. So the question is: was this a famine, or was it a society where some people were economically disadvantaged to the point where they starved? This is a valid question to ask of any situation labelled a "famine."

"Kilkelly" covers years 1860-1892, significantly after the famine, but it does refer to smaller outbreaks of the fungus.

"Skibberreen" is more directly related to the famine.