Can anybody shed any light on this (in Britain I waas thinking of, but anywhere else would be of interest). I'm sure I've read that physical ownership of a manuscript can in some circumstances give rights to the owner, irrepsective of who actually wrote it. Say I owned a manuscript with a hitherto unpublished tune in it, and the composer is dead (a long time ago say, more than the time copyrights expire in). In this hypothetical case, would I have any rights? I am sure I would have rights in the physcal reproductions of the manuscript, but how about the music therin? Anybody know about this?