I'm a bit dismayed that there has been much more nonsense and squabbling here than serious reponse to Azizi's original question. She always has something interesting and intelligent to contribute, and seems to be fighting the good fight to keep some wonderful dying traditions alive as long as possible -- as such, she deserves better responses.

Isn't it sad that, in this thread, Martin Gibson contributed one of the most responsive messages? (No offense, MG, old buddy; I realize you're on your best behavior up here above the BS line. Just commenting on the irony.)

My own take on the question is that black folks in Britain, at least before WWII, were present in such small numbers that they never formed a "critical mass," a large enough community with a shared culture -- nothing in any way comparable to the group experience of slaves and ex-slaves (and even free people of color) in the US. Individual players certainly emerged and excelled, but I doubt that people of African descent make an impact *as a group* upon British traditional music at all comparable to what happened in America.