It's also unwise to make assumptions based on a misunderstanding of syntax and etymology, and the fact that this song has been found only once, ever, with "jubal" (however spelled) in it; and that in the Edwardian period. As I've said already, find me a single example of the biblical jubal used adjectivally, ever, and I'll concede that you may have a point. Until then, "Nerd's" OED definitions are all we need. They answer the question easily, and from proven usage. All the biblical jubal arguments are based on pure speculation unsupported by evidence of any kind.

By all means disagree; but do offer real evidence based on actual usage. Until someone can do that, I'd consider the conversation closed.