Why no plays or even books bequeathed?

He could be bright and very successful as an impresario and possibly an actor, and still not be author of those plays.

It seems to me likely that a spectacular command of the language was necessary in order to write them--and that presupposes an excellent education. The parallel with innate mechanical ability (as in the Wrights) does not hold.

I'm very curious to know what evidence is in the book by Brenda James and William Rubenstein (which I understand has a Forward by the artistic director of the Globe Theater-- (presumably the one in London).

Is your mind closed?