AR282 said:

"Jesus Christ, or more properly Jesus the Christ, Jesus, which is the given name of our Lord, was the Greek form of the Hebrew Joshua, meaning savior."--J. G. Ferguson KJV, 1965, p.21 of the "Scriptural Directory."

"'Jesus' is a rendition of the original Yeshua both in the Hebrew temple language or in Aramaic, the common language of daily life in first century Palestine. It means 'one who shall help, save, or deliver' God's people."--James C. Winston KJV, 1993, p. 1377.

"One who shall help" is not the same as "messiah". I assume that Winston would have said "Messiach" if that's what he meant. That terms was around when the King James Version was written, and also in 1993, I believe.



And AR282 went on: After this, if you try to pull this on me, I will simply reply, "What is your evidence to the contrary?"

I didn't say that it was not so; I merely said it was news to me, and inquired as to a source.   I didn't and don't claim that I HAVE evidence to the contrary, but merely that I didn't know that to be the case. I said (and I quote), "That's news to me!" And it was. I also implied, I suppose, that I had doubts about the accuracy of that attribution, which I think I am allowed to do even in the absence of proof.

Dave Oesterreich