"Next question: Who opted for war in '48? The Arabs did, as far as I know.

(Note: I have never claimed the Arabs were completely innocent. I have never claimed that they do not have Israeli blood on their hands. I have never claimed that only Israel is a malefactor in the Middle East wars. I have, to the contrary, claimed that both sides are equally at fault in those wars, and that is what I continue to claim."


So the fact that the Arabs STARTED the war in 1948 means Israel is EQUALLY at fault? This is the logic that I find objectionable.

So, Iraq is equally at fault for the US invasion, and Canada is equally at fault for WWII.