So Peter T. - if a company in England or the USA, or for that matter the national government, offered a bribe to someone in a ministry in some Second or Third World country, would that count as corruption in England or the USA?

This isn't a polemic point I'm making here - from what you say, it's the kind of thing that Transparency International might actually take into account. So do you know if they do? And is the corruption measured in terms of the number of bribes, or the total amount of money involved, or the seniority of the people offering them and taking them? >