"Those who claim otherwise can reasonably be supposed to do so for their own nefarious and exclusivist purposes ..."

"...nefarious and exclusivist purposes"! Now what might those be?

One of the reasons why I tend to insist on the 1954 definition is because I would prefer it if the music I love is not 'colonised' by rock and pop music - which I can hear anywhere (often whether I want to hear it or not!). I suppose this could be interpreted as "exclusivist" (by the uncharitable) ... but "nefarious"?!