According to the headline of the (Daily) Mail Online, the Lord Chief Justice says that "Sharia Law SHOULD (sic) be used be Britain..." Well I don't know that it 'should be used', but I would have no objection, were I a Brit, to it being used under certain circumstances: if the matter is strictly a civil matter; and if both parties really agree to the proceeding (but I don't mean 'agree, wink, wink').

In Britain, Jew are entitled to settle certain matters in a Beit Din, a Jewish court, so the precedent is there for religious jurisdiction.

In the U.S, likewise, Jews use Beit Dinim for civil matters, and agree to be bound by those decisions, much like binding arbitration.