I am quite happy with your explanation, Volgadon and I have already said that I cannot provide any proof of earlier usage. Which, again, if you had read my full post you would have seen! What I am saying is that because a term has been hijacked to mean one thing doesn't mean that thing is right. Does the word 'gay' mean homosexual? No. Does the word semetic mean Jewish? No. Part of my extended family, by marriage, are Jewish in faith. They are certainly not semitic in race.

No amount of common usage will chage the original meaning of a word just as no amount of spin will make LoTD anti-Jewish! I hope you now understand that I am not ignorant of the subject, as you suggested earlier, but maybe have a better understanding than most.

Cheers

Dave