Georgiansilver wrote: "Perhaps if you had read what the Bible says about Jesus and the Blind man... and the lame man..... your understanding would be better. I am sure Jesus prayed for the world when on His own.. but he met the blind man and healed him on the spot... likewise the lame man....
So unless He actually had a premonition or foreknowledge that He was going to meet them... why would He have prayed specifically for them in private?."

I'm familiar enough with the bible to know these stories, please give me some credit! :D

Your point about Jesus not praying in private in these cases isn't quite as logical as you'd probably like to think though. Surely prayer doesn't have to be a 'there and then, in-person' kind of thing? Other-wise, how do so many prayers actually work in the first place? All those church prayers, school assembly prayers, bed time prayers they were done 'remote' and often 'after the fact'.

To bring this more relevant to the thread topic, that's one of the points that makes little sense to me. If prayer works both ways - 'in situ' and 'remote') why would the nurse have wanted to actually pray with someone unless it was some kind of proselytising?

Also, I genuinely mean this with respect, but surely the idea of if Jesus and foreknowledge &c is a bit odd? You know, the son of an omniscient God and all that? Again, I'm honestly not being facetious. Maybe I have more faith in Jesus' abilities or something? I'd have thought that if anyone would know of something in advance and could pray/cure 'remotely', then it would be Jesus.

Perhaps the kind of Christianity I've been exposed to in the past has wrongly hyped up Jesus in that respect. Again, not being facetious, sarcastic or anything - I have my own beliefs and I'm quite conscious of trying to respect other people's in the way I'd like mine to be respected.