Again, maire-aine and Uncle DaveO, the spelling-vs-pronunciation-(dis)similarity issue comes up with "-ind". For me a more basic question, and one that might cast light on maire-aine's question, would be "why are there all these common verbs in English that are spelt (something to do with wheat?) "-ind" but pronounced as if spelled (stepped in to provide a brief respite?) "-ined", AND why do so many of them have "strong" past tenses in "-ound" (pronounced to rhyme with "downed", not to rhyme with "crooned", at least ootside Scotland)?? There are exceptions to the irregularity, for example the verb "to mind": no English-speaker, I think, would consider "She always mound her mother" a well-formed utterance. Or at least there's that one; right off the top of my head I can't think of another. Wait, yes! Blind! Fanny Crosby was blinded in infancy, not blound.