I try not to ignore direct question

Please try harder. Here's the one I'd be particularly interested in getting a response to:

I am personally of the opinion - although this is nowhere in the 1954 definition - that there probably won't be any more folk music in Britain or Ireland; the conditions under which the process described by Karpeles could work don't obtain any longer. But if I'm right, so what? What do you object to in the idea that the folk process as described by Karpeles is a thing of the past? I'm genuinely curious - this is a real stumbling-block for me in understanding some of the arguments made here.