A few moments on the internet shows that the figures stated by pdq represent the number of survey respondents who identify themselves as homosexual. That is likely to be much below the number who experience homosexual attraction partly because of the definition itself and partly because respondents will under-report.

All the commentators that I found who attacked the Kinsey derived figure of 10% were plainly interested more in an agenda than fact, and appeared to define "homosexual" as referring to the lifelong exclusively homosexual in practice.