"Sexist language, sexual bragging, glorification of drunkeness, violence to womwen, etc" - sounds a lot like many many types of music, Al.

However, I came to this thread to ponder on one thing. Azizi used to make the point (possibly correctly) that modern African-Americans avoided traditional blues because it reflected their untermensch status in the bad old days: I paraphrase I hope fairly.

But there seems to be a bit of a boom in klezmer and so on music. What difference would explain modern African-Americans fleeing the heritage of their oppression, but modern Jews not fleeing theirs, that of the music spanning hundreds of years while they were excluded and/or ghettoised and/or vilified in word? Is the explanation simply the difference between historical slave status and historical non-slave status?