"...It has been suggested that repression might predispose some.
That is all...."

At last. Some clarification. The above statement is a significant move away from your hysterical and nonsensical rantings on this thread.

Now, in order to wrap things up, any chance you can illuminate the discussion by telling us - in your OWN words - whether this predisposition is uniquely constrained to members of the Muslim faith/ British Pakistani community?

Before you respond, it would be helpful if you can reflect on those members of the host (read white British) community who have been found guilty of abuse of a sexual nature against minors. And whether the fact that a higher proportion of white British people have been convicted in said area means that there is a higher predisposition towards crimes of sexual abuse in white British society than in other elements of our society?

Answers supported by a statistical analysis please, as opposed to some Googled shit.

Thank you