"do you or do you not think that the propensity for grooming young girls for sex is more predominant in the DNA of Pakistani males than in other groups? "

Of course not.
It has not even been suggested in any of the material I have produced.
I have quoted people who believe it comes from custom and culture, and said I have been convinced by that argument.

Given that this crime is mainly committed by BPs, and given that the above explanation has been denounced as racist, can we have an alternative please.