"all male Pakistani Muslims have a culturally implanted tendency" but only because of the testimony of all those knowledgeable people, and always acknowledging that only a tiny minority succumb."
Where does your culturally implanted tendency come from?
You have claimed over and over again that you have not attacked the British Pakistani culture yet you have talked about a culturally implanted tendency towards paedophelia - what is the evidence for that tendency, and if it is not genetic, what is it - you have already introduced the accusation of genes in regard to members of the immigrant communities in Britain into this argument?
Where is your evidence of of any tendency within the Pakistani population to any degree whatever towards paedophelia?.
Where is your evidence of any massive over representation whatever?
These are total inventions of yours; nobody else has said them nor even hinted at them outside of specific situations involving small numbers of criminals.
You have persistantly attempted to present paedophilia as a commonplace among British Pakistanis.
You have attempted to make the grooming of underage girls a mainly Pakistani crime, when every parent in Britain has warned their children at one time or another not to take sweets from strangers - this throughout history and when it is recognised that street grooming is a common occurence in all communities, including the indigenous one.
You have refused to even discuss the grooming of underage teenagers by white, christian men, even when it occurs to the extent of more than one in every ten, as it has in Northern Ireland.
You have set out to show, totally without proof, that the British Pakistani communities are cultural degenerates.
These are not Pakistani paedophiles; they are a relatively small number of criminals alongside a far greater number from the indiginous and other communities (according to Jack Straw), who you have presented as a cultural threat.
If that is not racism - what is?
Jim Carroll