""But my posts are intended to disagree fundamentally with those who assert that there is no such over-representation as there clearly is,""

OK Mike, since you are being the voice of reason here, can you suggest any way in which Keith's comment that he believes that British Pakistanis are culturally "slightly predisposed to commit these offences", can be supported in the face of the complete lack of any cases in the one third (approx) of British Pakistanis who live in the south?

Keith insists that he can make assertions about all British Pakistanis while ignoring one third of them to skew the results.

There are of course many other ares where British Pakistanis live without cases of this type.

I would really like to know whether you believe, as Keith obviously does, that statistical results can be obtained from a skewed sample?

Don T.