Well, I could just say 'not really' again, but I don't think that would get us very far!

As I happens, I am far from enamoured with the Platonic model, but I believe he would say the form exists metaphysically irrespective of the ability of language, and that the language is invented to try to describe the pre-existing form. In at least some circumstances science agrees with this in that the existence of things is not related to our ability to discuss them and we often have to invent specialist terminology for that precise purpose. (Of course, quantum mechanics is, as usual, somewhat different)

It would useful if someone who had actually studied this stuff could confirm or dismiss that statement.