The cultural explanation came from the 5.
Even you are not certain they are wrong.
If culture is to blame, then I would expect it to be manifested in a range of responses in those in that culture.

The range would be from no effect to actual offending.
Agree? I am not a social psychologist and am ready to be corrected.

Empirically we know the distribution is skewed towards no effect as hardly any offend.
I have explained all this before.

The cultural idea and its implications do not come from me.
I do support the over-rep.

Whatever your opinion of me, why must you keep constantly pushing it?
Why can we not just debate the issues?