http://www.cnn.com/2012/10/17/world/meast/israel-calorie-count-gaza/index.html

This account notes, as Cook's carefully does not, that the situation he describes was "eased in 2010."

It all happened several years ago, and there've been no reports of starvation (much less indications that Gaza will be "uninhabitable by 2020"). So the story seems to boil down to the fact that the Israeli government calculated an average calorie requirement for the Palestinians that is essentially the same as what the U.S. government calculates for its own citizens. It may or may not have implemented that calculation, but Cook's story implies it would have been a crime to do so, a "starvation diet." In fact it would not.

The restrictions on food shipments seem to have been symbolic.

Unlike the "Shoah."

Cook concludes that "It does not need an expert to conclude that" the cutbacks would "entail widespread malnutrition." But why didn't he consult an expert? Because the expert might contradict him?

Had there been malnutrition in Gaza over a period of years, wouldn't we have heard about it?

Have we? Has the Palestinian Authority called on the UN for action? Did CNN report what would have been a vastly bigger story than what we have here?

Think about it. An Israeli policy that was apparently intended (despite a symbolic cutback in deliveries) to provide as many daily calories for the Palestinians as Americans are supposed to get, is enthusiastically equated to the extermination of 6,000,000 Jews by the Nazis.

And that astonishing comparison is accepted as fact.

Like I say, think about it.