""this is the same word in luke 1 v27,and if you follow the passage to v34 you find mary sayng to the angel !"how can this be,seeing I know[sexually]not a man.
I fully realize bill, that you don't believe this, but please do not infer that the bible does not teach it. ""

No, the bible doesn't teach it!

Luke asserts it in one section of the writings cherry picked for inclusion in the bible..

Was he present, do you think, at this conversation between an archangel (a stretch of imagination) and a woman who gave birth 130 or so years before Luke took up his pen and wrote it down, presenting it as gospel?

Because, if he wasn't there, he knew no more about the truth of the story than you.

Don T.