So, specific question to all and sundry but hopefully with an answer from Lizzie as well.

Why is the situation between Harris and Saville any different?

They have both been accused of indecent acts
The only proof of those accusations is in statements made by the accusers.
The accusers have sold their stories to the press
There seems to have been some sort of cover up

As far as I can see the only difference is that Harris was found guilty by a Jury even though he could give his side of the story. We can only ever speculate on the outcome of a Saville trial.

Anyone?

DtG